Can private property be taken for public use without the owner's consent?

• A. Yes, under eminent domain, if the owner is given due compensation.
• B. No, private property cannot be taken for public use.
• C. Yes, but only with owner consent.
• D. Only for roads and railways.

Answer: (A)

The concept being tested is eminent domain—the government’s power to take private property for a public use. It can do this without the owner’s consent, but only if just compensation is provided to the owner, typically the fair market value of the property taken. The idea of public use is broad and includes more than just roads and railways; it covers any project that serves the public interest, such as schools, utilities, parks, and similar public needs. So the correct choice reflects that private property can be taken under eminent domain with due compensation. The other options are incorrect because they either deny the government’s power, require owner consent, or unjustly limit the scope to roads and railways.